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100% Pass Quiz 2025 MCCQE: MCCQE Part 1 Exam Perfect Test Dates

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q81-Q86):

NEW QUESTION # 81
A 58-year-old woman presents with a 1-year history of functional decline. She reports seeing rodents and little children invading her bedroom. Her partner tells you she has a slow, unsteady gait and tends to fall. On examination, she cannot sustain her attention during cognitive testing. Which one of the following is most likely to be found on brain imaging?

A. Medio-temporal atrophy
B. Subdural hematoma
C. Cerebellar atrophy
D. Bilateral frontal atrophy
E. No structural abnormality

Answer: D

Explanation:
The symptoms - visual hallucinations, attention deficits, gait instability - suggest dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), which may show bilateral frontal or parietal atrophy on imaging.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Neurocognitive Disorders:
"DLB presents with fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and attention deficits. Imaging may show frontal or parietal atrophy but is not always specific." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Neurocognitive Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize the characteristic features of DLB and support diagnosis with imaging when appropriate." Cerebellar atrophy (A) is linked to ataxia but not hallucinations. Subdural hematoma (B) causes abrupt decline. Mediotemporal atrophy (D) is typical of Alzheimer's. Option E is incorrect - imaging can support the diagnosis.

NEW QUESTION # 82
A 51-year-old man comes to your clinic for follow-up regarding his type 1 diabetes. His hemoglobin A1c is
12.5% (normal 4-6%). He has never had such high blood sugar results. He drinks 2 beers per night to help with sleep. He is not well rested because he has been sleeping on a friend's couch since losing his job last year. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Ensure that he has the finances to adequately monitor his diabetes.
B. Ask him to create a food journal and refer him to a dietitian.
C. Prescribe an antidepressant to improve his energy and motivation.
D. Send him for thyroid function testing.

Answer: A

Explanation:
This patient is experiencing social instability (homelessness, job loss) likely contributing to poorly controlled diabetes. Before investigating or prescribing further, it is essential to address his ability to afford and manage self-monitoring and insulin.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Diabetes:
"Social determinants such as housing insecurity and financial barriers significantly affect diabetes self- management. Addressing access to glucose monitoring and insulin is critical." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Chronic Disease Management:
"Candidates must assess barriers to effective disease control, including financial and psychosocial limitations." Antidepressants (B) may be helpful later if depression is suspected. Thyroid testing (C) is not the priority. A dietitian (D) may help long-term, but immediate access and adherence are more urgent.

NEW QUESTION # 83
A 70-year-old woman had a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy 2 days ago.
On examination today, her vital signs are as follows: She has been immobile since her operation. She is fatigued but is tolerating a full diet. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's fever?

A. Pulmonary embolism.
B. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis.
C. Atelectasis
D. Bowel trauma during the operation.
E. Wound infection.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Postoperative fever on day 1-2 is commonly caused by atelectasis, particularly in patients who are immobile.
It is considered a self-limited cause of early fever after surgery and often resolves with mobilization and pulmonary exercises.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Surgery, Postoperative Complications:
"The '5 W's' of postoperative fever: Wind (atelectasis), Water (UTI), Wound (infection), Walking (DVT), and Wonder drugs. Atelectasis typically occurs in the first 48 hours and is due to hypoventilation or pain- limited breathing." MCCQE1 Objectives - Surgery > Postoperative Management:
"Candidates must recognize timing-specific causes of postoperative fever. Atelectasis is the most likely cause within the first 48 hours." PE (B) can cause fever but is less likely without respiratory compromise. Wound infection (C) and bowel trauma (D) typically present later or with more specific symptoms. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis (A) usually presents later and with more systemic signs.

NEW QUESTION # 84
A young man and woman who are in a relationship present to the office for prenatal counselling. During the visit, you observe that the man's lips appear as shown in the referenced photo.

[Image shows grouped vesicular lesions on erythematous base affecting the lips-classic for herpes labialis (HSV-1).] Which one of the following is the best advice?

A. The woman must have a cesarean delivery
B. The man needs herpes simplex virus type-specific serology
C. The woman should have viral cultures of her cervix
D. The woman should take acyclovir throughout her pregnancy
E. The man should avoid performing oral sex during her pregnancy

Answer: E

Explanation:
The patient shows signs of herpes labialis (HSV-1), which can transmit genital herpes via oral sex. This poses a risk to the fetus if maternal infection occurs during pregnancy, especially near delivery. Preventing new genital HSV infection during pregnancy is critical.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics:
"HSV-1 can cause genital herpes via oral-genital transmission. Avoid oral sex during outbreaks in pregnancy to prevent primary maternal infection." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Infectious Disease in Pregnancy):
"Candidates must understand the importance of preventing new HSV infection during pregnancy and counsel appropriately." Culture (A) is not useful unless symptomatic. Serology (B) is not needed in this context. Cesarean (D) is not indicated unless active genital lesions at delivery. Acyclovir (C) is for infected mothers or near delivery.

NEW QUESTION # 85
A 39-year-old woman comes to the office for a periodic health examination. She reports that her father had a recent diagnosis of breast cancer (at age 62 years) and that a paternal aunt had ovarian cancer in her early 40s.
The results of mammography are normal. Which one of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?

A. Annual mammography starting at age 50 years.
B. Bilateral mastectomy.
C. Prophylactic tamoxifen therapy.
D. Random fine-needle sampling of the breasts.
E. Genetic screening.

Answer: E

Explanation:
This patient has a family history of both male breast cancer (father) and early-onset ovarian cancer (aunt), which are red flags for BRCA1/2 mutations. Genetic counseling and BRCA testing are the appropriate next steps to stratify cancer risk and guide screening and prevention.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Oncology, "Breast Cancer Risk" Section:
"BRCA testing is recommended for individuals with a strong family history of breast or ovarian cancer, particularly if involving male relatives or early-onset cases." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-5: Screening and Prevention):
"Candidates must identify high-risk individuals who require genetic counseling and screening beyond population guidelines." Tamoxifen (A) and prophylactic mastectomy (E) are only considered after confirming mutation status. Annual screening starting at 50 (D) is for average-risk women. Fine-needle sampling (C) is not a screening tool.

NEW QUESTION # 86
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